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QUESTION 1
What is the benefit of the Priority-Based Flow control feature in Data Center Bridging?
A. provides the capability to manage a bursty, single traffic source on a multiprotocol link
B. enables bandwidth management between traffic types for multiprotocol links
C. addresses the problem of sustained congestion by moving corrective action to the network edge
D. allows autoexchange of Ethernet parameters between switches and endpoints
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
DCNM device discovery is done by connecting to Cisco NX-OS devices and doing which three of these? (Choose three.)
A. Collecting the running configuration
B. Raising the logging level to meet the minimum requirement
C. Discovering all devices by default
D. Discovering devices using multiple user accounts as long as they are administrator-level accounts
E. Using LLDP to discover network adaptors
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 3
On the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, Control Plane Policing is enforced on which component?
A. The supervisor module enforces CoPP before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU
B. The fabric modules enforce CoPP in the fabric before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU
C. The linecards enforce CoPP locally before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU
D. The egress virtual output queue enforces CoPP locally before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
On a Cisco Unified Computing System (UCS), which two statements regarding Ethanalyzer are true? 300-165 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Interface inbound-low handles Rx and Tx of low-priority control packet
B. Interface inbound-lo handles Rx and Tx of high-priority control packet
C. Interface inbound-low maps to internal interface eth3
D. Interface inbound-low maps to internal interface eth4
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which component of the Cisco Nexus 7010 architecture provides out-of-band management, an always-on microprocessor for disaster recovery, and remote restart capabilities?
A. central arbiter
B. Connectivity Management Processor
C. supervisor engine
D. dedicated s ervice modules
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
When testing ICMP access to a functional load-balancing ACE VIP, it fails. What is the reason of this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The interface is shut down
B. An access list is denying ICMP
C. Routing is not configured properly
D. vip icmp-reply is inactive
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which statement is true regarding Backup tasks in Cisco UCS?
A. They are created automatically and stored on the FI
B. They are created manually and exported to a remote server
C. They are automatically scheduled to run every 24 hours
D. They are manually scheduled and stored on the FI
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What is the main function of the device-alias distribute command?
A. This command distributes the device alias configuration on the existing switch to all the other switches in the Cisco Fabric Services region.
B. This command enables distribution and will send the configuration after a commit is executed.
C. This command changes the distribution mode for device aliases.
D. There is no such command.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What is the use of an “all configurations” backup in Cisco UCS?
A. Can be used to migrate from a 6120 to a 6140 and retain the same service profiles
B. Can only be used on the fabric interconnect on which it was created
C. Can be used to migrate from a 6120 to 6140 and retain system IP addresses and cluster information
D. Can be used to match firmware versions between 6120 and 6140 during a migration
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which information is the most important to know early in a business requirements project? 300-165 dumps
A. the customer’s go-to-market approach for generating revenue
B. competitor prices
C. the organizational structure
D. the company’s budget for marketing products planned for two years in the future
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
In the Cisco future solutions architecture framework, the security solutions are directly built upon which component?
A. management and intelligence capabilities
B. Cisco security platforms
C. third-party applications
D. security intelligence operations
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
KAL-AP on the Cisco ACE allows communication with Cisco ACE Global Site Selector, to report virtual IP and real server availability. Which statement is true about KAL-AP?
A. It is a Cisco propriety keepalive.
B. It supports a maximum of 256 KAL-AP entries.
C. It supports a maximum of 256 KAL-AP keepalives.
D. It is used for both Cisco and non-cisco load balancers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which option is a way to validate that you have established credibility with a business executive?
A. Ask an IT stakeholder to inquire with the executive on your behalf.
B. Brainstorm with the internal team to get feedback from peers.
C. Ask the executive whether you could join a future staff meeting and present for 15 minutes.
D. Offer to show the executive a demonstration of the latest security software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which statement about discovery meetings for larger scope projects is true?
A. Discovery should be performed to a lower level of detail than for smaller projects.
B. Planning for discovery activities may take more effort, but this step is essential.
C. The project team should be staffed with more subcontractors to keep the costs down.
D. Request that the customer captures a baseline of needs in advance of your work.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which statement about how Business Model Canvas diagrams are a useful tool is true?
A. They depict the operating procedures for system management.
B. They establish a consensus view among customer executives about the organization strategy and major processes.
C. They decompose the processes for a single department.
D. They identify the bottlenecks within a customer service process.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which statement about why stakeholder analysis for a large initiative can be challenging is true? 300-165 dumps
A. A higher level of politics and uncertainty typically exists with larger initiatives.
B. The IT department most likely has a higher level of influence as compared to other projects.
C. The stakeholder analysis 2×2 framework — interest vs. power — only works for small scope projects.
D. It is necessary to assess 90% or more of the stakeholders for an effort.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which option describes the default predictor on ACE to select the best server to fulfill a client request?
A. the hash cookie, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on a cookie name
B. least bandwidth, which selects the server that processed the least amount of network traffic
C. round robin, which selects the next server in the list of real servers
D. the hash DNS, which selects the server using a hash value that is based on FQDN
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
In a FabricPath topology, each device is identified by a switch ID, and all Layer 2 forwarding tables are built based on the reachability of the switch ID. Which protocol is used to assign the switch ID?
A. No protocol is used. The switch ID is always assigned manually.
B. The Dynamic Resource Allocation Protocol is used to assign the switch ID.
C. The Switch ID Assignment Protocol is used to assign the switch ID.
D. The switch ID is assigned based on the system ID of the device.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which statement is a characteristic of future state capabilities?
A. They identify operating practices for a single department.
B. They depict all of the requirements that a customer organization desires (best case).
C. They convey the most important business elements that are needed to achieve goals in the future.
D. They should define very detailed needs for the near-term and high-level needs for one or more years out.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which action is the recommended way to establish trusted-advisor credibility with a senior business executive?
A. Ask open-ended questions about the organization’s priorities and goals.
B. Ask questions about the IT organization’s track record for problem resolution.
C. Provide an overview of your sales team’s reporting structure and metrics.
D. Ask detailed questions about the process to acquire cloud computing solutions.
Correct Answer: A

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